Update: 28/01/10 - Please note that this post reflects my views during my early stages of exploring Orthodoxy and may not necessarily reflect my current understanding with complete accuracy.
I know that each recognises the other, and the Sacraments of the other, as being valid. However, I know that both agree that there is a schism (although there is a slight difference of opinion over exactly who went into schism). With that in mind, are there any occasions where Communion is permitted in one by a member of the other? If so, what sort of situation would this happen in? I know that my questions are coming thick and fast this weekend, but my curiosty is being aroused. Many thanks.
2 responses:
This answer may give you a rough guide. I'm sure some worthy Orthodox will be here to fill in the gaps soon!
Ian's post pretty much sums up what we've been taught. We don't commune at Roman parishes, and they don't commune at ours: at least not without being received by Chrismation, Confession, and Repudiation of Errors first. ;)
Having said that, I've been 'welcomed' to partake at Roman parishes, schools, and monasteries: but not at the Indult parish or Cistercian monasteries I've visited (and no, I don't partake.) I respect the Indult folks and the Cistercians (at Caldey) far more because of it: it means they respect their own belief, and they respect our belief as well (IOW, we know that unity in the chalice is the end goal and fruit of union, not the path towards unity.)
Most often you'll likely hear that the word 'valid' is simply not in the Orthodox vocabulary when speaking of the non-Orthodox. Most take a rather 'agnostic' view of anything outside the Orthodox Church, though some might have a more strict view on whether any service of the non-Orthodox has 'grace'.
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