The Ascension of the Lord
Thou hast raised our human nature
on the clouds to God's right hand;
there we sit in heavenly places,
there with Thee in glory stand:
Jesus reigns, adored by angels;
man with God is on the throne;
mighty Lord, in thine ascension
we by grace behold our own.
This is something that I wrote in response to a question about Christ as mediator:
Sin or no sin, the Incarnation (God becoming human) and some form of subsequent Ascension (God's taking humanity unto God) would have happened. The Incarnation was a complete act of love on God's part and not a quick-fix because we sinned.
What we did in the Fall was to alter the human nature that God was going to adopt. We introduced death into the equation, and so the humanity that God was to become one with now included this added dimension, which itself had to be overcome and conquered. Therefore, if God were to take our human nature upon himself in order to take it into the divine nature, then death was included in this, and so he shared in it in his Crucifixion and conquered it in his glorious Resurrection, and only then did he ascend, opening the way for us to follow.
My question is how does, (if at all it does), this fit in with that line from the Exultet, which reads, "O happy fault! O necessary sin of Adam, which has won for us so great a redeemer"? If the redemption of man and creation through the Christ-event was part of God's plan for our deiication from the start (which, I believe, is a perfectly acceptable belief within orthodoxy and one with which I have much sympathy), then it was not necessitated by man's sin. If so, then does the line from the Exultet hold true? Do we use this in the text of the Vigil in the Western Rite of Orthodoxy?
I'm just a little confuddled and would be appreciative of any light that anybody might be able to shed on this. Many thanks.
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